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I now know about the even function rule where you can change the bounds from -a to a to 0 to a by putting a 2 out front of the integral for any "even function." After asking my first question about that the new solution did not use that method and instead used -2 to 2 as in the original problem, this makes the answer 0 and if you use the even function method and pull the 2 out front the answer is pi/2. Which of these is the correct answer? How do we know when we can use that even function rule or when not to. I noticed the rule said an even function is when f(-x)=f(x) but I'm not exactly sure what that means
by Bartleby ExpertWhy can we pull the 2 out front and change the bounds of the
by Bartleby Expert